So the presence of DNA other than Oswald's on the jacket is probable. For that reason, the presence of someone else's DNA wouldn't mean the jacket was not worn by him on 11.22 as you stupidly suggest here.
What is really stupid (but rather common for you) is suggesting that I did suggest that, when I did no such thing. It's just another pathetic strawman. All I am concerned with is the presence of Oswald's dna on the jacket. If it's there, it means he must have worn it. If it's not there he most likely didn't wear it. Now, if a dna test on the jacket does not find Oswald's dna would you accept that he likely did not wear it? Or are you going to be evasive again?
One more time for Martin/Roger:
I'm not being evasive at all but answering the direct question that you posed:
"
If dna was found in the jacket and it doesn't belong to Oswald, would you accept that CE 162 was not Oswald's jacket or at least wasn't worn by him?"
My answer is that I would expect DNA of other individuals to be on the jacket. It may have been owned and worn by someone prior to Oswald and has been handled by numerous individuals over the decades since its discovery. That is a very stupid question that you posed. If you are asking if the jacket is tested and Oswald's DNA is not discovered on it after nearly 6 decades, does that mean it didn't belong to him, then the answer is that it doesn't rule out Oswald's ownership of the jacket. The absence of DNA is not the same as the presence of DNA. Can you understand that simple point? The presence of DNA would conclusively link Oswald to the jacket (unless some contrarian made a stupid, baseless claim like it was planted or the authorities should have found "more" DNA as with the fingerprint evidence). The absence of DNA simply means none was found. It does not exclude Oswald as having worn the jacket. This would be obvious to most.