Again, our dishonest contrarian who responds to every post has neglected to answer the basic question. If dishonest John is not implying that Brewer was part of some plot relating to Oswald, why does it matter whether Brewer found Oswald suspicious? If the allegation is simply that Brewer had no reasonable basis to conclude that Oswald was acting suspiciously, but was just overly paranoid, then so what? It doesn't appear to have any relevance whatsoever. It's only in the "strawman" context that Brewer's motivation has any significance. Just one of an increasing number of dishonest lines of arguments. Suggesting that Brewer had no legitimate basis to find Oswald suspicious, but then denying that any nefarious intent is implied. How about just spelling it out? Is there any reason to believe that Brewer's actions were motivated by any other reason than that he found Oswald's conduct suspicious -whether that suspicion was reasonable or not in your subjective opinion? Are you suggesting that Brewer's motivation was based on something other than finding Oswald suspicious?