Why did the person who murdered Tippit administer a cold blooded coup de grace to the poor man's temple? the officer was hit with multiple shots in his core, was entirely incapacitated and had already suffered what were almost certainly fatal wounds- As the only person Oswald has harmed with a gun up to this point was himself, wouldnt his first, second and third impulse be to get out of dodge with all due haste? The only reason to execute Tippit methodically like a contracted "mechanic" is the adage that dead men tell no tales- And obviously this adage was top of mind to Tippits executioner and seemingly proof in of itself of a bigger picture- And why did Tippit quickly escalate the matter by unholstering and pulling his gun right away? It would appear Tippit had foreknowledge that this specific individual, apart from the 5,000+ men in Dallas who would fit the Brennan description, was extremely dangerous-
YAWN.No, sorry ...
MASSIVE YAWN.Wow, Sock Puppet Binnie, you have broken new ground. I don't believe these issues have ever been raised before.

"Why" is not a relevant question in a forensic reconstruction of a crime. We know what happened. We don't need to know why. "Why" is a question CTers ask because they can then fill in the blanks with CT-oriented speculation. You can't even ask the questions without resorting to multiple instances of CT-oriented speculation.
I suppose discussing the same things,
OVER AND OVER AND OVER,is one way an internet forum stays alive, but good God,
FIND SOMETHING NEW.Prove that Hale Boggs was whacked by Hoover, perhaps?
The improvement in your avatar is hereby noted.